Marbus wrote:Truant,
The commandment is actually Murder not kill. Think of all the people the Jews killed in the OT and all the laws regarding things which you killed people for back in the Laws, "kill" is just a mistranslation.
I sort of remember this. KJV says kill. NIV says murder. Although even in KJV it was always understood that killing in war did not apply in the way the words are used. That there were always holy wars, and that those were okay.
I had just understood that the modern translations (NIV,NLV,etc.) had changed it to murder, and said that the original phrase meant murder (but everything I read said otherwise). It's not really important, I don't have any argument. I just learned it as kill, and was taught it as kill. Now apparently it's murder, and it's okay to kill. (excluding of course the context of war...which has gotta really piss off those conscientious objectors, eh?)
Marbus wrote:Most things are open to interpertation regarding their application when it's not frankly spelled out like "thy shall not commit adultry" or something. That is where the problems come in right? In the Catholic teachings that is what the Church is to do and is protected by the Holy Spirit in their interpertation. Everyone is to read and study the Bible but when people can't understand what the meaning, the Church wil intervene.
When Jesus' teachings are as simple as, "Love thy God. (and) Love thy neighbor as thy would love oneself." Why leave in all the other stuff that isn't as clear and requires interpretation. All that does is confuse the issue and take attention away from Jesus' message. If christianity is to be based on the teachings of Jesus, why muddle the teachings of Jesus with all this other stuff (much of which isn't even applicable)?
Marbus wrote:In my understanding, and I may be wrong, the OT is there from a Historical perspective regarding where we came from, for the messianic predictions and to assist in our understanding of the NT. The Bible, accoding to the Catholic and most Mainline Protestents is God's word. Some of it was a direct dictation like the Torah but the rest was written through men but with divine inspiration.
I can understand the OT being studied and included for historical purposes. But if that's the case, leave it for scholars and theologians to study. If it's irrelevant, as per the actions of Jesus, then it's inclusion only serves to confuse and crowd the message of Jesus.
I can also understand it's inclusion in protestant bibles. Since the protestant reformation there have been movements of 'fire and brimstone' preachers leading revival movements. It's an important aspect of their method of saving people (even if I don't agree with it).
I can also understand it being included to put the "Fear of God" in people. That was especially important in earlier days, although I doubt it is much anymore.
It just seems incredibly ineffecient for a religion that was freed from the rituals of old judaism to carry around the holy book of old judaism. If they're included because they're considered to be the word of God, and we're just trying to be complete in that presentation. Then why are some of the books left out, and others included in the christian bible as opposed to the jewish bible? Do we now disagree on which books were the word of God and which weren't?
Marbus wrote:Romans isn't about homosexuality, it's about the Church in Rome and how to be a good Christian for those new believers there struggling against opression in a outlawed religion (in particular for their belief of "eating" their God at worship - something that only Catholics, Anglicans and Lutherans still do). Most of the letters in the NT are to different Churchs or groups of people to help them further their faith and usually address specific issues that particular congregation is dealing with. Due to the practices in Rome at the time, that is why Homosexuality is mentioned in that book. However it's not a long diatriabe or anything.
I knew the book of Romans wasn't about homosexuality.

I may not have been clear above, but I meant to say that I didn't at present recall the passage in Romans that mentioned homosexuality, and thus defer to you on your explanation of it. I do remember that the book of Romans was written by Paul after Jesus died. Subsequently I don't see how homosexuality (consensual) goes against the teachings of Jesus.
Marbus wrote:The other thing, from a Catholic perspective, is that both the Bible AND the Church are how we learn about God. Since the Church was started before the Bible was compiled and we only had the Historic Oral Traditions along with tons of different writings. It was up to the Church to decide which of those not only should be in the Bible but also what the Church should teach. Since the NT gives the power of Apolistic succession to Christ Church on Earth with Peter as the head of the Church, then the Catholic Church, Peter's SEE (Rome) not only has the authority (the "Keys of the Kingdom" from Matthew I think) but also the duty and protection to document teachings (DOGMAs) that may not be in the writting word or Canon (Bible).
Does that mean that the church gets to 'append' the word of God and the teachings of Jesus with whatever they feel is necessary and wasn't covered by God/Jesus? Cause if so that's pretty whack. Especially considering that Jesus' message at it's core is completely all-encompassing.
Marbus wrote:Here is another interesting note that I didn't know, in the writings of Martin Luther, he wanted to take James, Revelation, Hebrews and another book out of the NT because they don't really fit into the whole "faith alone" aspect of Protestantism... considering it is the material clause of the entire reformation he went so far as to add the word "alone" into his German translation of the NT to help make sure people got the picture... not sure that is really valid myself. Of course that addition is not in the newer translation or even the KJV for that matter...
Other protestant reformers/movements tried to add/cut books of the bible as well, but I don't believe any of them ever actually did. Also, that little addition to the translation happened in other forms to be sure. I know for a fact that KJV has little phrases appended here and there that really change the meaning quite a bit. And there's obviously a pretty massive gender bias in the KJV, heh.
I didn't quote other parts of your post that I only had random comments on (meaning:nothing relevant), but thank you for the responses.
edit. Conscientious is a dumber word than irregardless. You guys won't let me have irregardless but you allow conscientious? C'mon someone was just cheating at scrabble that day.
